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June 10

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Is Rosa Parks and Alice Walker full black, half black or 1/5 black. Since from many images Rosa Parks' skin color always looks whiteish. Alice Walker looks pretty tanned too. Is Rosa Parks and Alice Walker bronze race? if so, which one have darker skin color?--69.226.38.106 (talk) 00:02, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

How can someone be 1/5 of descent?!? All fractions of ancestry must be multiples of 1/2. As to their ancestry, according to our article on Rosa Parks she is part African-American, part Cherokee and part Scots-Irish, though it does not give specific numbers of ancestors of each lineage, so I don't think one could calculate exactly what fraction of each ethnic group she was. Our article on Alice Walker makes no mention of her ethnic ancestry. It should be noted that there are very few people who could be considered "Purely" one ethnicity if one were to go back even more than 3-4 generations. "Full-black" is an entirely subjective idea; Rosa Parks wasn't treated 87.5% as badly as other black people simply because she had a white great-grandfather; people are largely treated a certain way by society based upon outward appearance. You may be interested in the one-drop rule for some of the sordid history of race relations in this context. --Jayron32.talk.contribs 02:27, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Multiples of 1/2 and powers of 1/2. E.g. someone can be 3/4 of one race by having one parent + one grandparent.
Purely on a theoretical basis, someone with the following set of ancestors of a particular race (where 1 generation = immediate parent, 2 generations = grandparents, etc) would be approximately 0.2000 or 1/5 of that race to four decimal points:
3 generations: 1; 4 generations: 1; 7 generations: 1; 8 generations: 1; 11 generations: 1; 12 generations: 1. --PalaceGuard008 (Talk) 03:47, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
See Human skin color for a pretty detailed discussion of the two types of melanin, and the effects of genes and the environment on skin color. Tempshill (talk) 23:38, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

U.S. Treasury bonds

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If U.S. Treasury bonds are issued at different times at different interest rates, how is it possible to quote their prices as a single number? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 98.114.98.122 (talk) 01:32, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

It's not - bonds of different durations have different yields, see yield curve. Bonds that have the same (or similar) expiry dates, but different issue dates and interest rates can be quoted by a single number, the yield. The yield is the total profit from holding the bond, which depends on the price and the interest rate, the price is adjusted by market forces to cancel out the differences in interest rate. --Tango (talk) 01:44, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Because time to maturity affects the price, not time since issue. Remember, if two bonds from the same issuer pay the same cashflows at the same times in the future, they should have the same price. However, there may be small differences due to liquidity for off-the-run versus on-the-run issues. Zain Ebrahim (talk) 11:28, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Often the industry will pick one particular treasury bond as the standard for a given period of time and it will become the "benchmark bond" for that maturity. This allows commentators to talk in terms of the 30 year bond fell 3/32 today, for example. Investors recognize that while the benchmark 30 year might have fallen 3/32, 30 year bonds of other coupons may have fallen more or less than the benchmark. Typically the benchmark security is the most recently issued version of that security because it typically trades closest to par value and typically will have pretty active trading activity. As bonds get older, they can become less actively traded as investors squirrel them away in their portfolios.pmcyclist (talk) 17:29, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Concept problems

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May I ask where is the difference between Free and Liberty? and where is the difference between Duty and Obligation? Thank you! Matthew 百家姓之四 Discussion 討論 01:39, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

In English, there are often subtle shades of meaning which are hard to define in words, but which native speakers often known almost intuitively; which results in words with similar meanings having different usages. Freedom and Liberty are not identical ideas; "Freedom" is a much larger concept that can mean "unhindered" or "open" in many different contexts; whereas "Liberty" exclusively refers to the sphere of "human rights". Thus, while "freedom of the press" may mean the same as "liberty of the press" they are roughly interchangable, I can say that a well fitting pair of trousers offers me good "freedom of movement" (i.e. I can move well in my pants because they fit well), I would never say that my pants offer "liberty of movement". Likewise, "Obligation" is a bit different than "Duty". I would use "Duty" to only describe positive actions I must take, such as a duty to serve on a Jury if called or something like that; "Obligation" carries a tone of "indebtedness". I would say I have an "obligation" to repay a favor you do for me; but "duty" implies that some outside power, like a government or religion, coerces me to do so. --Jayron32.talk.contribs 02:18, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
There are a lot of cases in English where you have a pair of words, one that came to English via Latin and/or French and one that has Germanic origins, that mean (or used to mean) roughly the same thing. "Liberty" is of Latin origin and was the most-common word to refer to the concept of being able to do what you want until around the 1930s, when for some reason the Germanic "freedom" became more popular. Now "liberty" sounds kind of old-fashioned, like something you'd hear in a play about the Revolutionary War. -- Mwalcoff (talk) 01:01, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Quantum computer company

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I am a mathematical physics student, and I have some thoughts of creating a chip manufacturer. These aren't any other computer chips, however -- they are tiny quantum computers. I have a solid marketing strategy. I don't have the technology whitepapers, but could hire scientists to work for my startup. If I don't have patents for a novel idea but have a bright new concept and a marketing plan, what are my chances of getting funded? I may forget to check this page next time I am on ikipedia, so please send a copy of your reply to my talk page. Thanks! -- Ractogon (talk) 02:40, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I assume you're already familiar with venture capital and angel capital, and that there are many, many sources out there for advice in this area. Impossible to say what the chances of getting funding are; it depends on how great your pitch is and how believable are the concept and the team you are pitching; and also on the sorts of investments that active VCs and angels in your area are making. (They all talk to each other.) Tempshill (talk) 03:28, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
For some reason many investors like to waste their money on narcissists with grand ventures who think the world revolves round them rather than checking back when they ask a question. If that is your bent I think it would be better however to spend more time studying other people and seeing what drives them. Intelligent self centred people who plan ahead with people in mind are often the ones that get really rich. Dmcq (talk) 09:37, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Let's also note that manufacturing quantum computers are not a "bright new concept" in the sense that would get a venture capitalist drooling. As an idea, it's not novel. As a goal, it's not practical. What matters now for quantum computers isn't manufacturing capacity but the research needed to move QCs from "yeah, technically, it's got qubits" to "well, so much for public-key encryption." If you can accomplish that one, then undying fame and fortune will be yours -- assuming you remember to patent it. Rather than venture capital, this sort of scenario calls for the resources available to a research university. As our article notes, many entities are funding research, so start brushing up your grant proposals. — Lomn 11:51, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
It's not known whether nontrivial quantum computers (that do stuff that conventional computers can't easily do) are possible even in principle, though that hasn't stopped D-Wave from getting funding. People in the field tend to be skeptical of that company's claims. 67.122.209.126 (talk) 13:09, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You've put the cart before the horse. You have a solid marketing strategy but no product yet. Get a product first. Then it doesn't matter if you've got a strategy. Lots of people know abut quantum computing and all that it promises — you don't stand out unless you can actually do it. Get yourself a fistful of patents and you'll have venture capitalists eating out of your hands. --98.217.14.211 (talk) 15:03, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Is your "novel new idea" somehow related to the construction of quantum computers? In such a way that you will be able to construct quantum computers with relative ease, while others can barely string two qubits together? And do you have some proof that your idea isn't just the ravings of a lunatic? APL (talk) 04:13, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
And let's face it, who can't come up with a 'solid marketing strategy' for quantum computers? Nil Einne (talk) 04:19, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
I've got a marketing plan for an anti-gravity device that also gives you eternal youth. All I need to do now is hire some scientists! APL (talk) 14:07, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
I will trade you for my new line of beer that will cure all known diseases, and turn lead into gold. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 65.121.141.34 (talk) 19:40, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Labour conditions of Israeli Jews and Israeli Arabs in Israel

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Do they work together in the same offices? Do companies have some policy to avoid conflicts? Is a different treatment legal in some cases?--Mr.K. (talk) 12:22, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

To answer your questions in order, yes, probably and hell no. Israel is not (by and large) institutionally racist, just like the UK, or US. Though due to the...unique conditions of the area there are a fair number of moderately racist people in Israel, but the UK has a decent number of those too (22% of people think immigrants commit the majority of crime, for example). Israeli Arabs make up around 15% of the population, a significant minority, so it isn't practical to segregate them, nor do most people want to. Most Israeli Arabs are more Israeli than Arab anyway (not that the two are mutually exclusive) and live as normal citizens. The only policy differences are things like different religious holidays and possibly dietary requirements and so on, I don't think anyone goes further than that. I don't actually live in Israel, though I have friends who do, family who did, a great interest in the area and have made an extended visit recently. Prokhorovka (talk) 22:12, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
To further this, Israel is a secular state and not a theocracy. While the majority of the population is Jewish, the Israeli Constitution has protections against religious discrimination. To draw a parallel to the Islamic world, it is much more like Turkey than it is like Iran. --Jayron32.talk.contribs 02:27, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
There is an article Arab citizens of Israel with several relevant paragrahps, including one titled "discrimination". I think there is, in practice, the important difference that Israeli Arabs tend not to have served in the military (though the article claims they can choose to if they want), and that limits their job prospects in some fields. Jørgen (talk) 02:36, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
To clarify, Israeli Arabs are exempted from conscription, but can volunteer to join the army just like you can apply to join the army in pretty much every country if you are a citizen. They aren't the only group exempted, the Bedouin and extremely orthodox jewish minority also don't have to fight, though many of them volunteer too. Prokhorovka (talk) 10:26, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Who was the Confederate leader who wrapped himself in the CSA flag and shot himself?

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Who was the Confederate leader who wrapped himself in the CSA flag and shot himself? --Gary123 (talk) 15:56, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Edmund Ruffin, who (supposedly) also fired the first shot at Fort Sumter. Adam Bishop (talk) 16:16, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Some might say that he wasn't so much a "leader" as a bitter old man who wandered around stirring up trouble... AnonMoos (talk) 01:23, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Where can I find Drug Use/Production statistics for years earlier than 1988/9?

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I've been curious about how the rate of drug use has changed over the course of the last 100 years or so, particularly in the United States, but I can't seem to find any data older than 1989 or so. I've searched online for "drug use statistics"/"historical drug use"/"cocaine use in the 20th century" and similar search terms, but I can't seem to get past sources for much more recent data (e.g. 8th/10th/12th grade drug use/availability surveys). This (large file) is a particularly good source for recent international drug production and consumption, but again their data doesn't go back further than 1990. Thank you! johnpseudo 16:46, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

These high school surveys will get you as far back as 1975, if you're willing to pay. Their most recent pdf (free), gives some comparisons between today's statistics and the early 70's but doesn't have detailed charts for earlier decades. As yet I've been unable to locate non-survey statistics for earlier periods, but I'll keep looking. 152.16.16.75 (talk) 10:33, 13 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Do difficult people exist?

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Is there a defined group of difficult people or is it all relative? (meaning that I am a difficult person to you and you are a difficult person to me).Mr.K. (talk) 17:30, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

People disagree. Is that what you mean by "difficult?" If we know what is being referred to by "difficult," we may be able to identify a category of people that contain that trait. My hunch is that it may be difficult to identify such a category of people, but that is one way that I see in approaching that question. Bus stop (talk) 17:36, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
People with oppositional defiant disorder are diagnosed as such for being supremely difficult, for some definition of same. --Sean 18:12, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
There is also the...well, actee sense that must be considered, too. The actor (the one doing things that some may see as difficult) could be seen as difficult to some, with those with ODD like TotoBaggins suggests being on the more extreme end. However, the one who is affected by such a person may not see them as difficult.
A good example of someone who refused to see people (at least children) as difficult is Edward J. Flanagan. Some people might have seen the more troubled children that he cared for as too difficult to handle, but he didn't. So, in that sense, it really is relative. Difficult traits might be a better term. Someone might not have the patience to deal with a person with certain traits, whereas others can. Certain traits - kindness - just aren't as difficult to handle as others - say, rudeness.Somebody or his brother (talk) 18:26, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

You could certainly find a subset of people who are 'universally difficult', or something to that effect. The immediate caveat is that there are also people who are supremely patient and understanding for whom even the most hard-headed individual presents little difficulty. Vranak (talk) 02:33, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

A human case of the irresistible force meeting the immovable object. I wonder who'd win. -- JackofOz (talk) 05:57, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
I don't understand the question. "Defined," in what way? Are we talking about being "defined" by being "difficult?" Or are we talking about being "defined" by some other characteristic? Do we find people with protruding chins, or curly hair, to be more "difficult" than people with receding chins, or un-curly hair? Furthermore -- what do we mean by "difficult?" Are those that are more prone to express a dissenting opinion considered "difficult?" Human disagreement is extremely common. Are we only talking about being "unjustifiably" difficult? I think the question needs clarification. Bus stop (talk) 17:57, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Very first election in Iran

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Dear Wikipedians,

I think the very first elections in Iran were held in 1906 during the Constitutional Revolution. Is this correct? Did women had the right to vote in this election or any other possible elections before it? 86.137.163.186 (talk) 20:47, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I can't answer the first half of your question but I'd be flabbergasted if women did have the vote in 1906. Remember that in the UK women didn't get suffrage until 1918/28 (1928 they were granted the same voting rights as men).

--Goes and checks properly--

Our article on the topic says that women in Iran first got the right to vote (though not necessarily in all elections) in 1963, so the answer is definitely no. Prokhorovka (talk) 22:16, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

Equivalent of the Independent Police Complaints Commission in the US?

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Hopefully this is a fairly simple question. Is there an equivalent in the USA to the Independent Police Complaints Commission in the UK? I understand that there is Internal Affairs but I was wondering if there is an equivalent (or roughly equivalent) independent body? I would also welcome examples from other countries - equivalent (or roughly equivalent) independent or state bodies. Cheers, JoeTalkWork 22:29, 10 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]

I've never heard of such a body in the US or any of its states. Generally, if you have a problem with a police department, the first step would be to complain to the department itself, then to the legislative or executive body for the jurisdiction, such as the city council or mayor; county council or executive; or your state legislator. The next step would be to file a lawsuit. -- Mwalcoff (talk) 00:55, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Depending on the nature of the complaint the next step may be to talk to a superior jurisdiction (federal agencies or state police instead of local ones) Of course, given the multitude of ways 50 states have set up their laws that isn't always possible. Rmhermen (talk) 01:14, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
The police are organized completely differently in the UK and US; in the UK, police bodies are pretty much creatures of the central national government, and local governments do not generally have much direct authority over them. In the US, the police are organized according to law passed by the 50 separate state legislatures, and mainly funded and controlled by the various different local governments within each state. So a national police complaints commission really wouldn't make too much sense jurisdictionally or legally in the U.S. (except maybe for the relatively few federal law enforcement organizations, such as the FBI, DEA, BATF, and marshals). However, the U.S. justice department does sometimes charge local police officers with crimes of civil rights violations... AnonMoos (talk) 01:20, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]
Many local jurisdictions in the U.S. have civilian agencies that are somehat analogous to the British Independent Police Complaints Commission. E.g., in New York City they have the Civilian Complaint Review Board. Also, local police civil rights violations can be investigated by the FBI and the national Justice Dept. —D. Monack talk 03:29, 11 June 2009 (UTC)[reply]