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I don't think the Saadia Gaon should be in this category... While it's true that he'd be called "Mizrachi" for living in Mesopotamia today, the fact of the matter is that the guy's been dead for over a millennium. "Ashkenazi" and "Sfaradi" didn't develop distinctly until the 11th or 12th centuries, 3 centuries after the Saadia Gaon was dead and gone, and at that time there was certainly no such thing as "Mizrachi"... Tomertalk06:28, 27 January 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I fully agree with Tomer. The Geonim are all as much part of the Ashkenazi heritage and history as they are of the Sephardi/Mizrahi. IZAK07:00, 27 January 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Well — he actually was not from Babel, but from Miṣrayim... Which adds even more to the problematicness of coining him Mizraḥi. And (/but) at the same time, the argument whether someone is considered a part of a specific tradition after the fact should not have any implication in itself. Thus, Moshe ben Maimon was not any less Sephardi even though his work is also an integrated part of the Ashkenazi traditions...
All this being said — the Ashkenazi/Sephardi division is not the question here — but whether Sa‘adia was Mizraḥi. Now, the distinction between the East (Babel) and the West (Ereṣ Yisrael/Mi̋rayim/etc.) was clearly there already in Talmudic times. But Sa‘adia does not fit neatly into either of these categories (which are not anachronistic, actually) either.
I do not at all think that it is correct to take away Sa‘adia’s categorisation as a Middle Eastern Jew — he was exactly that, and it is very anachronistic to “hide” that. I would suggest categorising him as Egyptian Jewish (or whichever supercategory includes Egyptian Jewish), since that clearly was his main background.