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A statement intended to discuss the period in which the book was most likely written was removed with the following edit summary "Alexander's depiction as a "Roman" is due to naming of an empire after the dominant people. Sound familiar?" I fail to see the relevence of this remark, or the point of the rhetorical question. Could Fullstop explain? The purpose of the sentence is to locate the book at the time of Roman/Parthian rivalry. The "naming of an empire after the dominant people" is precisely the point. Paul B (talk) 21:27, 8 September 2008 (UTC)[reply]