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It seems to me that the article is a little biased toward not blaming the decline of Czech agriculture on mismanagement, but rather stating things like:
"Even before World War II, industrialization in Czechoslovakia had substantially reduced the relative importance of agriculture in the economy"
do you mean to make the decline seem less traumatic?
or
"Record harvests in 1984 and 1985 made it possible virtually to halt grain imports"
You fail to explain what would grain imports be necessary at all to a land that was self sufficient before communism... — Preceding unsigned comment added by 79.182.140.205 (talk) 07:01, 14 August 2015 (UTC)[reply]
