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April 29

Explanation of "The Nihilist" painting by Paul Merwart

The article on Nihilism includes a painting by Paul Merwart titled "The Nihilist." (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Merwart-Nihilist.jpg) Where can I find a description of the actual scene and, if known, the artists intended meaning, or if not expressly known, what it is believed to convey? Thanks.108.77.93.246 (talk) 01:20, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

"Guesstimate", a subject inspired by Olympe Audouard's "Les soupers de la princesse Louba d'Askoff. Drame d'amour et du nihilisme, published 1880 (Paul Merwart "The Nihilist" is dated 1882). --Askedonty (talk) 14:46, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Nihilist movement & Narodniks might provide some contemporary background on the subject. E.g., from Nihilism:

[Narodniks] believed that the newly freed serfs were merely being sold into wage slavery in the onset of the Industrial Revolution, and that the middle and upper classes had effectively replaced landowners.

—107.15.157.44 (talk) 17:09, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Indeed. When the lower middle class starts wanting to believe it's so there's a problem. Olympe Audouard curiously begins her venetian-carnival-like faerie by a very flatly posed description of the Russian society. According to her depiction the whole society responds to the 14 categories of the Tabel' o rangakh, which she calls the tchinn: "So that's the sixty million men forming the Russian people, classes, numbered, like the petty drug packages of pharmacists." ( She uses the term social number just before the same ) --Askedonty (talk) 19:14, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks to all for answers. I will read the recommended sources and see what else I can learn.108.77.93.246 (talk) 23:09, 1 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Can the European Union's judiciary declare laws and constitutional provisions in EU member states to be unconstitutional?

Can the European Union's judiciary declare laws and constitutional provisions in EU member states to be unconstitutional like the US Supreme Court can do for federal laws, state laws, and state constitutional provisions? Futurist110 (talk) 05:12, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

The European Court of Human Rights certainly approaches that, though I don't know the exact legal details... AnonMoos (talk) 06:39, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Literally, no, because the EU does not have a constitution in the American sense. Practically, yes, because the ECJ can declare a national law provision incompatible with EU law, and EU law takes precedence. This applies not just to Treaty provisions (the closest equivalent to a "constitution"), but also to regulations. The various national courts in practice accept this, but for more detail you need to read Primacy of European Union law. Henry ^Flower 08:09, 29 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

OK; that makes sense. Also, if the EU will actually get a constitution, then this would become true in a literal as well as in a practical sense, correct? Futurist110 (talk) 00:13, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

That would depend on how pedantic one's being (and in this field that can be substantially pedantic). Because EU law takes precedence anyway, all the ECJ would need to do would be to declare the national provision contrary to EU law (in this case that EU law would happen to be the constitution); there would be no reason to invoke a further idea of unconstitutionality. I suppose the hypothetical constitution might specify some extra consequences of unconstitutionality, but that's pure speculation. As far as I recall the failed attempt at a constitution did not do so. Henry ^Flower 08:58, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

In Ireland there is an explicit provision in the constitution allowing it to be overridded by laws in the EU so the ECJ has primacy. Dmcq (talk) 12:04, 30 April 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Thank you for your responses here, everyone! Futurist110 (talk) 02:05, 4 May 2019 (UTC)[reply]

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