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August 1

How common is it for an athlete to be in a team for only a single season but win a championship with that team that season?

As done by Kawhi Leonard and his one-year stint with the Toronto Raptors, which gave him a Finals MVP and the Raptors their first championship. Has a similar case ever happened before in the NBA/MLB/NFL/NHL/MLS or in other major sporting leagues around the world? Narutolovehinata5 ^tccsdnew 00:02, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Deion Sanders, 1994 San Francisco 49ers, Super Bowl XXIX pops into my head as a player whose one-year stint gave him a championship ring. Zzyzx11 (talk) 01:16, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Here's a near miss: a coach, not a player. Mike Keenan coached the New York Rangers for only one year, but they won the Stanley Cup. --76.71.6.164 (talk) 05:08, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

This phenomenon is likely to be fairly frequent on team sports with large squads, especially football and baseball. On the 2016 Chicago Cubs, they had picked up Aroldis Chapman from the Yankees, the Cubs won the World Series, and then Chapman went back to the Yankees. Also on that team was Ben Zobrist, who had one year with the Kansas City Royals, who won the Series in 2015, and then Zobrist came to the Cubs. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 10:50, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

In the NFL, where the average player experience is something like 3.3 years, there are MANY players who only ever play 1 year in the league, often several on any given team (teams carry a roster of 50+ players, several of which might only get occasional playing time). Given that, it is quite likely that MANY of the Super Bowl champions have at least one player whose only year for that team (and likely in the league at all) was on a championship team. I went back to the 2017 Philadelphia Eagles season, and found at least one player, rookie Elijah Qualls, who won the championship with the team and then was cut, and has not appeared on a regular season roster since (he has been picked up as a "Practice Squad" member by the Panthers last year, but those do not appear on game rosters.) would be surprised if one couldn't find similar "one and done" players on many other championship teams in the NFL. --Jayron 32 12:24, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

For the NHL, Alex Chiasson is an example with the 2017-18 Washington Capitals. There are a few players who this could apply to for this year's St. Louis Blues team, depending on what happens over the summer (Patrick Maroon for example). I haven't checked further back but I feel like it's pretty common, with "rental" players or players with long careers on a mediocre team who go somewhere else to win and then retire...Ray Bourque doesn't quite fit since he played a little more than one season in Colorado, but that's a pretty close match. Adam Bishop (talk) 00:41, 3 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Another Toronto example is Dave Winfield for the 1992 Blue Jays. Adam Bishop (talk) 00:49, 3 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

With Dave on that team was Jack Morris, who pitched for the Jays for two seasons, but won World Series in both of them (although he stank his second season). The year prior, he was with the Twins for one season, winning the World Series with them as well. Matt Deres (talk) 15:29, 3 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Moisés Alou is probably the best known of several who played only one season for the 1997 Florida Marlins, who won the World Series that year. (As the champs fell in the standings in 1998, there was the facetious cry by some fans, "Wait Till Last Year!" ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 17:51, 3 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Parson's code

I cannot read music and do NOT know the correct terminology. Using Parson's code to inform of the pitch changes in a tune is possible. I have seen some music where the note symbol is followed by the same note symbol some little distance to the right with an arc connecting the two above them. For the purposes of Parson's code, does this all count as one note or as two with the second note being "r" (repeat)? -- SGBailey (talk) 13:43, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

You appear to be describing a tie (music). If so, they are one note. 199.164.8.1 (talk) 14:32, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

As noted, this is called a "tie". (don't confuse it with a Slur which uses the same notation for connecting different notes). Ties are used instead of higher note values for situations where the note value is held in opposition to the expected beat pattern. For example, assume you are in 4/4 time and want a note to last for two "beats". If the note falls on beat one of the measure, you use a half note to indicate its length. However, if you wanted a half-note length but the note would carry over the measure (like, if you started it on beat 4, so the note would "carry" into beat 1 of the next bar) you couldn't use a half note because you don't have enough beats (a half note on beat 4 would imply at least 5 beats in the measure, which doesn't exist in 4/4!) So, to indicate THAT note, you would write two quarter notes on either side of the measure line and "tie" them together to indicate that the time value is still supposed to be a half note. You can also uses ties within a measure to indicate syncopation, for example if you want to start a quarter note half-way in between beats 1 and 2 of a measure, you would use two tied eighth-notes instead. --Jayron 32 15:28, 1 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks -- SGBailey (talk) 07:21, 2 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Strictly speaking, it is possible (but rare) to write notes straddling a barline. Examples appear on the last page of Robert Schumann's F-sharp minor Piano Sonata, Op. 11 (dotting notes over a barline) and on p. 14ff of his C major Fantasy, Op. 17 (crotchets/quarter notes that start in one bar and ends in the next, as they begin on the last semiquaver/sixteenth note of a common-time bar). However, today this is usually considered to be bad form (except in cases when writing it "properly" makes things harder to read). Double sharp (talk) 08:00, 2 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Just to point out one thing that has been implied, and hasn't been said explicitly, but should: writing music is meant to allow performers to recreate the music as intended by the composer. There is no single "correct" way to write music, in the sense that there is only one way to write notation that could be used to reproduce a piece. Things like key, time signature, and even whether or not to use ties vs. different notes symbols are set by convention and expectation of the western music community over many centuries. You can notate a piece of music in any number of arbitrary ways; the issue is to notate it in a way to make it as convenient as possible for performers to recreate what you, the composer, want them to. And much of that (like the "rule" that a note shouldn't cross a bar line) are just conventions that have sort of built up over time. If musicians had been trained to read rhythm slightly different, such a convention may not have happened. Written music is a language that, like any language, has built up a set of organic conventions over time, and those conventions do not mean that other ways of doing it are wrong in the sense that they couldn't be used; just that when you violate conventions everyone is comfortable with, you can be unnecessarily confusing, which is usually a bad idea when you're trying to be understood, in the way that a composer wants their music understood by a performer. --Jayron 32 14:00, 2 August 2019 (UTC)[reply]