Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Entertainment/2012 September 2
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September 2
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Baseball question—why do infielders catch a ball when the infield fly rule is invoked? The batter is out anyway, so why do they make the effort to catch the ball? Is it counted as an error if they let it fall? 71.146.4.142 (talk) 19:52, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- If they let it fall, and it takes a bad bounce and gets away from them, the runners could advance. RudolfRed (talk) 19:57, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- Indeed, while the batter-runner is out when the infield fly rule is invoked, the ball is still live, so if the infielder were to let it drop, and it bounced off unpredictably, the other runners are allowed to advance. --Jayron32 20:05, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- RudolfRed and Jayron32 have nailed this one. (A secondary point is that if it's not clear whether the ball will land fair or foul, the infielder would need to set up to catch the ball to get the out even if it winds up foul. The batter is automatically out under the infield-fly rule only if the infield fly is fair.) Newyorkbrad (talk) 20:14, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- Plus, there's also the practice of catching the ball is so ingrained in baseball players that it is difficult not to. It's also why basketball players will still lay the ball into the hoop even well after the score wouldn't matter (like at the end of the quarter of obviously after a foul or shot clock violation). They've got the ball in their hands, there's a hoop, and they just put it in without a careful assessment of whether or not it is the best course of action. Likewise, the baseball player catches the ball just because he can, not because he's carefully weighed and considered all of the various implications, and decided that it is absolutely necessary. A lot of sports is automatic: you do what you are trained to do. There isn't time to think, so you train yourself to react and not think. --Jayron32 20:25, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- RudolfRed and Jayron32 have nailed this one. (A secondary point is that if it's not clear whether the ball will land fair or foul, the infielder would need to set up to catch the ball to get the out even if it winds up foul. The batter is automatically out under the infield-fly rule only if the infield fly is fair.) Newyorkbrad (talk) 20:14, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:43, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Indeed, while the batter-runner is out when the infield fly rule is invoked, the ball is still live, so if the infielder were to let it drop, and it bounced off unpredictably, the other runners are allowed to advance. --Jayron32 20:05, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- Another way to put it is that although the batter is out, it is otherwise a normal fly ball. So, as noted above, if the infielder lets it drop, accidentally or on purpose, runners can try to advance, or they can stay put, as they choose. However, if a runner has wandered off base before the ball was caught, the ball could then be caught and the runner could be doubled up. That would be known technically as a "bonehead" play by the runner. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 22:12, 2 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:43, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:43, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:43, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:43, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- There are occasions when the fielder will let the ball drop on purpose, hoping to catch a runner trying to advance. 69.62.243.48 (talk) 02:42, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- The infielder has to be careful. As per rule 6.05(l): If he lets the ball hit the ground untouched, you're right. But if he touches it on the fly and then purposely drops it, then the batter is out, the ball is dead, and the runners are not forced. This is true in any force situation, i.e. even if there is only a runner on first base. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 13:42, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Yes, although that's always a tough call for an umpire. The most famous non-call where that allegedly happened was in a World Series game in the 1970s—I was reading about it in an umpire's memoir, probably one of Ron Luciano's books, I'll have to find it—but the controversy over whether the ball was dropped on purpose was swallowed up because that was the same play on which (depending on whom you believe) a throw hit Reggie Jackson in the hip, or Reggie Jackson put his hip in front of a throw. Newyorkbrad (talk) 15:09, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- 1978, Game 4, 6th inning. Box score:[1] There may be some Youtube footage, but my buffering is slow as a dog today. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 21:57, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:06, 4 September 2012 (UTC)
- Yes, although that's always a tough call for an umpire. The most famous non-call where that allegedly happened was in a World Series game in the 1970s—I was reading about it in an umpire's memoir, probably one of Ron Luciano's books, I'll have to find it—but the controversy over whether the ball was dropped on purpose was swallowed up because that was the same play on which (depending on whom you believe) a throw hit Reggie Jackson in the hip, or Reggie Jackson put his hip in front of a throw. Newyorkbrad (talk) 15:09, 3 September 2012 (UTC)
- Thanks. 71.146.4.142 (talk) 00:06, 4 September 2012 (UTC)
- The infielder has to be careful. As per rule 6.05(l): If he lets the ball hit the ground untouched, you're right. But if he touches it on the fly and then purposely drops it, then the batter is out, the ball is dead, and the runners are not forced. This is true in any force situation, i.e. even if there is only a runner on first base. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 13:42, 3 September 2012 (UTC)