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Pathogen	(Gk. for one giving rise to suffering) is any biologic agent that causes a disease in the host.
Host	is any organism (or cell) harboring the pathogens that may (or may not in case of a strong immune response or depending upon the stage of infection) suffer from the disease.
Peptide	is a molecule consisting of less than 50 repeating subunits called amino acids, which are in turn nitrogen-containing organic compounds. Smaller peptides are known as di-, tri- or tetra-peptides for two, three and four amino acids that constitute them, and henceforth. Peptides with more than 10 amino acids are known as polypeptides. Usually peptides in multicellular organisms are derived from degradation of proteins outside or within the cells, or sometimes by their synthesis (production) within the body to serve various functions.
Protein	is a large (50 or more subunits) polymer of amino acids.
Antigen	is any substance that can be recognized specifically by the cells or proteins of the immune system. These are most usually proteins. But, they can also be polysaccharides (polymers of sugars). This recognition occurs through the B cell receptor or the T cell receptor present respectively on B cells and T cells (see below).
Epitope	or antigenic determinant is a portion of a protein that can be recognized by the immune system. It consists of a single stretch of amino acids known as linear or sequential epitope, or widely separated amino acids or short stretches of amino acids that are brought close together because of three-dimensional protein-folding known as conformational or nonsequential epitope.
Paratope	is that part of a protein molecule belonging to the immune system that specifically binds with the epitope. A paratope typically contains 15 to 22 amino acids.
Phagocytosis	literally means cell eating which involves engulfing the whole of a small (at microscopic scale) particle through the formation of small projections of the cell known as pseudopodia literally meaning "false feet". This process is followed by degradation (breaking down into simpler molecules) of the engulfed entity (very often a pathogen). Any particle that is engulfed by phagocytosis is said to be "phagocytosed".
Antibodies	are complex protein molecules also known as immunoglobulins that may be cell membrane-bound or freely circulating in the blood—secreted or soluble antibodies. Antibodies have various isoforms, meaning the various antibody molecules specific to the same epitope can have slightly different structures allowing them to perform different functions or possess different properties—remaining membrane bound—(immunoglobulin D or IgD); greater water-solubility—(immunoglobulin A or IgA); better penetration into interstitial fluid—(immunoglobulin G or IgG); and binding with many antigen molecules simultaneously, remaining membrane-bound, and activating complement system strongly—(immunolglobulin M or IgM). There is another class of immunoglobulin called immunoglobulin E (or IgE) that is involved in allergic reactions.
Actions of soluble antibodies	* Coat the pathogen not allowing it to adhere to the host cell. Precipitating (making the particles "sink" by attaching with them) the soluble antigens and promoting their clearance by other cells of immune system from the various tissues and blood. Coating the microorganisms to attract phagocytosing cells. This is known as opsonization. And thus the antibody acts as an opsonin. Activating the complement system. Marking up host cells infected by viruses for destruction in a process known as Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
Complement system	is a group of proteins present in the blood that help fight infections. One of their major functions is to make pores in the cell membranes of pathogens. Other functions include attracting WBCs to the site where these proteins form get cleaved to their acitvate forms (chemotaxis), and opsonization.
White blood cells or WBCs	are types of cells found apart from blood in various organs and tissues like the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, liver, lymph, etc. They are involved in functions of immunity. An important property of many white blood cells is that they can move over from one tissue to other (including blood) and then return back still retaining their functions in the process. They are also known as leukocytes (leuko=white and cyte=cell).
B lymphocyte or B cell	is a type of WBC that produces soluble antibodies and also recognizes a specific organism (through epitope present on the antigen present on pathogen's surface). Upon doing so, the B cell engulfs the pathogen.
T lymphocyte or T cell	is a type of WBC that produces soluble growth factors necessary for survival and proliferation (rapid division and multiplication) of B cells and other types of WBCs. They also stimulate the B cells by direct contact.
Macrophage	is a type of WBC specializing in relatively nonspecific phagocytosis and antigen presentation.
Major histocompatibility complex	is region on the DNA (the material responsible for transmission of various properties of a cell as well as the entire organism from one generation to the next) that codes for the synthesis of Major histocompatiblity class I molecule, Major histocompatiblity class II molecule and other proteins involved in the function of complement system (MHC class III). MHC-compatibility is a major consideration in organ transplantation.
Antigen processing	T cells can recognize antigens only when they are present on the surface of a cell. Another prerequisite is that these antigens must be complexed (loosely attached to) with MHC molecules. The "preparation of antigen" so that it can be brought to the surface of the cell possessing the antigen is known as antigen processing. This usually involves breaking down the protein (antigen) into smaller peptides. After the antigen is processed, it complexes with MHC molecule and migrates to the cell membrane. This is antigen presentation. The cells that are earmarked for this purpose are known as Antigen presenting cells, in which case they phagocytoze the antigen, and complex the processed antigen with MHC class II molecules. Examples are B cells and macrophages. All the nucleated cells can also process and present antigens synthesized within the cell (in case of viral infections or tumors) by complexing them with MHC class I molecules.
B cell receptor (BCR)	is an immunoglobulin present on the surface of the B cells that can bind specifically to its epitope.
T cell receptor (TCR)	is a protein present on the T cells that can specifically recognize an antigen bound to the MHC molecule.
Cluster of differentiation	Lymphocytes at various stages of development express molecules typical to them. The monoclonal antibodies that can specifically bind with a particular surface molecule would be regarded as one cluster of differentiation. Any monoclonal antibody or a group of monoclonal antibodies that do not react with known surface molecules of lymphocytes, but rather to a yet-unrecognized surface molecule would be clubbed as a new cluster of differentiation and numbered accordingly. Each cluster of differentiation is abbreviated as "CD", and followed by a number (usually indicating the order of discovery).

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—KetanPanchal^taLK

—KetanPanchal^taLK

—KetanPanchal^taLK 10:22, 24 June 2008 (UTC)

Testing

PGI Application

SR.NO. CONTENT PAGE NO. I. List of Administrative Staff 3 2. Introduction 4 3. Aims and Objectives of the Institute 5 4. Admission to the Courses 5 5. Procedure for Applying 5 6. General Admission Requirements 6 7. Admission Requirements for DM/MCh Courses 7 8. Method of selection (DM/MCh Courses) 8 9. Admission requirement for MD/MS Courses 9 10. Admission Requirement for MDS/House Job (Oral Health Sciences) 10 11. Method of Selection for MDS/House job (Oral Health Sciences) 11 12. Interse Merit for Admission Post Doctoral/Postgraduate Medical Courses 11 13. Reservation of Seats 12 14. Sponsored/Deputed Candidates 12 15. Other Critieria for Othopaedic Physcially Handicapped 13 17. Foreign Nationals 14 18. Fees and Dues 15 19. Duration and Emoluments of the Courses 16 20. Hours of Work 17 21. Leave 17 22. Agreement Bond/Sureties Contract for MD/MS/MDS 17 23. Dissertation - DM/MCh Courses 18 24. Thesis - MD/MS Courses 18 25. Financial Assistance for Thesis 18 26. Medical Benefits 18 27. Joining Time 19 28. Closing of Admission 19 29. 2nd Counselling 19 30. 3rd Counselling 20 31. Medical Examination 20 32. Terms and Conditions of the Junior / Senior Residency 20 33. General Information 21 & 23 34. Hostel Accommodation 23 & 25 35. Library 25 36. Sports and Cultural Activities 25 37. Procedure to be followed for the Entrance Examination 26 38. Important Note 26 39. Seats advertised for January 2010 Session 31 40. Masters in Hospital Administration (MHA) Course 32 S. No. CONTENT PAGE NO. 2 16. OBC Catagories 13 28a 1st Counselling/ Interview 19 4 Administrative Staff 2. Dean Prof. V. Sakhuja MD,DM,MNAMS,FISN,FAMS 1. Director Prof. K.K. Talwar M.D., D.M., FAMS 3. Registrar Mr. Naresh Virdi 4. Officer Incharge (Examination Cell) Dr. Pallab Ray M.D., DNB. GRAMS : POSTGRADMED FAX : 0172-2744401,2745078 E-MAIL : pgi@chd.nic.in Web : http://pgimer.nic.in For further enquiry, Please contact the Academic Section at 0172-2755569 INTRODUCTION The Government of India in the Ministry of Health set up a Committee Known as the “Health Survey and Planning 3 Committee" on 12th June 1959 to undertake the review of the development that had taken place” since the publication of the report of Health Survey and Development Committee (Bhore Committee) in 1946 with a view to formulate further health programmes for the country in the third 'and subsequent five year plan period. The committee recommended the setting up of six Postgraduate Medical Institutions in the country one each at Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad, Lucknow and Chandigarh to meet the increasing demand of teachers for the rapidly expanded medical College, specialities services for hospitals and need of the armed forces. The Postgraduate Institute of Medical Education and Research was conceived and planned in 1960 to create in Chandigarh as “Island of Excellence” providing physical and intellectual milieu for young scientists working in multiple disciplines of medicines, to advance the frontiers of knowledge, to render human service to sick and suffering and train medical and para medical manpower. The Institute was established in 1962 under the erstwhile state of Punjab. It was declared as Institute of National importance by an Act of Parliament (Act 51 of 1966) with effect from April, 1967. ADMINISTRATIVE STAFF INTRODUCTION The following are the objectives of the Institute a) To develop patterns of teaching in undergraduate and Postgraduate Education in all its branches, so as to demonstrate a high standard of Medical Education. b) To bring together, as far as possible, in one place, educational facilities of the highest order for the training of personnel in all important branches of health activity; and c) To attain self sufficiency in Postgraduate Medical Education to meet the country's need for specialists and medical teachers. a) Admission to various post doctoral/ Postgraduate courses conducted at the Institute is made twice a year. The sessions commence from first January and first July each year. b) The Institute follows a residency service cum training scheme comprising Junior Residents: Candidates admitted to MD/MS/MDS and House Job (Oral Health Sciences), courses are called Junior Residents/ Junior Demonstrators and those enrolled for DM/MCh. courses are designated as Senior Residents / Senior Demonstrators. c) The admission to the above courses imparted at the Institute is made on merit on all India basis by holding an entrance examination by the institute, after issuing a countrywide admission notice. The admission notice is published in leading English Newspapers of India usually during August/ September and March / April for January and July Sessions respectively. Before applying, the candidates are advised to go through the admission notice published in the press and the instructions given therein carefully. Fill in the application form in accordance with the instructions given in this prospectus and the admission notice. Incomplete applications will not be considered and no correspondence will be entertained. 5 6 a) Application for admission to the course are required to be submitted on the prescribed form enclosed with this prospectus. b) The application, complete in all respects accompanied with all the relevant documents should reach the Registrar, PGI, Sector-12, Chandigarh on or before the closing date. The applications received after the closing date will not be considered and no correspondence will be entertained. c) The fact that application form has been supplied on a certain date-will not be accepted as an excuse for the late submission of the application. The supply of application form does not ipsofacto make the recipient eligible for admission to the selection tests. d) Applications on forms other than prescribed for the purpose will not entertained. If any candidate gets an application form for a course different from the one asked for, he/she may submit the same application before the closing date. The application will be treated as an advance copy. The application on the prescribed form will be obtained later. NB The candidates who have more than one attempt in MBBS & MD/ MS courses each are not eligible for DM/ MCh, courses. The candidates who have made more than one attempt in their MBBS/BDS career are not eligible for MD/MS/MDS House Job (Oral Health Sciences) courses. However, those belonging to Scheduled Castes/ Tribes with upto two attempts in their MBBS /BDS career will be' eligible for MD/MS/MDS/ House job (Oral Health Sciences) courses. 1. A “failure” in examination, Compartment or reappear in one or more subjects will constitute an attempt. 2. Candidates due to appear in MD/MS examination may also apply for DM/M.Ch. courses. They will be admitted to the entrance test only when they supply the result alongwith attempt certificate of their MD/ MS examination from the University/ Institute concerned atleast two days before the entrance examination including the approval of their thesis. 3. Candidates applying for more than one subject in DM/M.Ch courses are required to submit separate application for each subject duly completed in all respects. Candidates will, however, be eligible to register for one subject only. AIMS AND OBJECTIVES OF THE INSTITUTE ADMISSION TO THE COURSES PROCEDURE FOR APPLYING 4. The candidates applying for MD/MS/MDS House Job (Oral Health Sciences) courses are required to submit only one application form. 5. Candidates applying for MD/MS/MDS/House Job (Oral Health Science) courses, must be registered with the Central/ State Medical Council/ Dental Council as the case may be. 6. Candidates applying for MD/MS/MDS/House Job (Oral Health Science) must have either completed or due to complete the compulsory rotating internship on or before 30th June/31st December for July / January sessions respectively. Age limit as on 1st July/1st January for session starting from July and January respectively. For Open Category : 35 years For SC/ST, Ex-Serviceman and Commissioned Officer including ECO, SSCO who have rendered or released on satisfactory assignment (Please attach the proof) : 40 years Deputed/Sponsored candidates : No age limit B. Qualification Requirement: Selection of candidate for DM/MCh courses will be made on the basis of multiple choice questions carrying 80 marks. The Theory Examination Consisting of part I & II is of 1½hrs duration. 1. a) General medicine for Candidates : 40 marks having M.D. (Medicine) qualification b) Pediatrics for candidates having M.D. (Pediatrics) qualification : 40 marks c) Pharmacology for candidates having M.D. (Pharmacology) qualification : 40 marks d) General Surgery for candidates having M.S. (Surgery) Qualification : 40 marks e) ENT for candidates who have applied for M.Ch. (Plastic Surgery) course with M.S. (ENT) qualification : 40 marks f) M.S.Orthpaedics Surgery : 40 marks 2. Speciality Concerned : 40 marks 3. Clinical Practical examination by the department concerned : 20 marks N.B. There will be negative marking for the wrong. Answers in the theory paper for part II only. Candidate invited for the selection will be examined in the theory paper in the subject concerned. Merit list will be prepared on the basis of the marks obtained by the candidates in the theory examination. Separate merit list will be prepared for each subject and for each category (i.e. general and sponsored/deputed). Eligibility for Clinical/Practical Examination: 35 marks The number of candidates eligible to appear in the clinical/ practical examination will, however, be FIVE times the number of seats to be filled in each subject and in each category of candidates provided the candidates 7 8 For all DM courses except for DM (Clinical Pharmacology, Neuro Radiology, Pediatric Haematology-Oncology & Pediatric Critical Care) course: a) MD degree in Medicine or Paediatrics or its equivalent qualification recognized by the Medical Council of India, except as otherwise indicated. b) Must be registered with the Central/State medical Registration Council. For DM (Clinical Pharmacology) course: MD degree in Pharmacology or its equivalent qualification in any clinical subject recognised by the Medical Council of India. For DM (Neuro Radiology) course: MD degree in Radiology or its equivalent qualification recognised by the Medical Council of India. For DM (Pediatric Haematology-Oncology, Pediatric Critical Care) course: MD degree in Pediatrics or its equivalent qualification recognised by the Medical Council of India. For MCh courses: MS degree in General Surgery or its equivalent qualification recognised by Medical Council of India. g) Radiology for candidates having MD Radiology/Radiodiagnosis Qualification : 40 Marks fulfill the cut off marks mentioned above. The candidates will be invited for the clinical/ practical examination strictly in order of merit in the respective category. Based on the aggregate marks obtained by the candidates in theory paper and clinical/practical and viva voce examination, merit list will be prepared subject wise separately for each category of candidates. The candidates are then interviewed-by the Selection Committee appointed by the Institute for the purpose which recommends the names of those found suitable for admission. The number of candidates to be called for interview will be three times of the total number of seats to be filled in each category, provided the candidates fulfill the cut off marks mentioned above. The selection will be finalized only after the candidates are interviewed by the Selection Committee. The interview with the Selection Committee is mandatory. A candidate who is absent at the time of interview will not be considered for admission. The interview with the Selection Committee does not carry any marks. The candidate must obtain an aggregate marks at least 50% (Theory + Practical) to be eligible for interview / counselling/ admission. ADMISSION REQUIREMENT FOR MD/MS COURSES To be eligible for admission to MD/MS course a candidate must possess the following qualifications; a) MBBS passed or its equivalent qualification from a University/ Institute recognized by Medical Council of India with not more than one attempt made during MBBS course. Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/ Tribes with upto two attempts during MBBS career will be eligible. b) Must have either completed or due to complete one year internship (rotatory housemanship) training by 30th June/31st December for July and January session respectively. c) Must be registered with Central /State Medical Registration Council. Method of Selection (For MD/MS Courses) The procedure for selection of candidates will be as under: a) Candidate will be called for the selection of MD/MS courses based on a theory paper carrying 100 marks consisting of 250 multiple choice question (MCQs) with five alternative each and single/ multiple correct responses: Negative marks will be given for incorrect responses marked correct. Duration of the examination is three hours. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before 1 ½ hours. The number of questions in each subject studies by the candidates during MBBS is appended below: Applied Anatomy - 6, Applied Biochemistry-12, Immunogenetic & Molecular Biology-10, Applied Physiology-6, Pathology-15, Pharmacology-12, Microbiology-12, Forensic Medicine-6, Social & Preventive Medicine-7, Medicine-36, Paediatrics-12, Dermatology-6, Psychiatry-6. Radiodiagnosis-6, Radiotherapy-6, Surgery-36, ENT-10, Orthopaedic Surgery-10, Ophthalmology-10, Anaesthesia-6, Obst. & Gynaecology-20. b) Merit list based on the percentile obtained by the candidates in the theory examination will be prepared for each category of candidates. Candidates of various categories who secure percentile in the theory as mentioned against each category will qualify for admission: Open (General) and Sponsored/Deputed : 55th percentile OBC, OPH, SC/ST, Rural Area & Foreign Nationals : 50th percentile c) Candidates are requested to attend the interview strictly in order of merit in the respective merits lists as the marks obtained by them in the theory examination. The number of candidates to be called for the interview will be three times the total number of seats to be filled in each category of candidates, provided the candidates fulfill the cut off points mentioned above. The selection will be finalized only after the candidates are interviewed by the Selection Committee. The Interview with the Selection Committee is mandatory. A candidate who is absent at the time of interview will not be considered for admission. The interview with the Selection Committee does not carry any marks. There will not be any clinical/practical examination. The reserved categories are also eligible to compete under the general category seats (open category). Thus, in addition to category wise list, a combined General Category merit list of all the candidates will also be prepared. In exceptional circumstances, if a candidate reports for counselling after his/her turn, he/she will be considered for admission only against the subject available at that time. ADMISSION REQUIRED FOR MDS/HOUSEJOB ORAL HEALTH SERVICES For admission to 1st year Junior Residency for MDS and House Job Oral Health Sciences) course, a candidate is required to possess the following qualifications. a) Degree of Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS) of Panjab University or any other University recognized by the Syndicate of the Panjab University as equivalent thereto with not more than one failure during BDS career. However, candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/ Tribes who have two failures during BDS career will be eligible. 9 10 d) e) S ADMISSION REQUIREMENT FOR MDS/ HOUSE JOB ORAL HEALTH SCIENCES b) Must have either completed or due to complete Compulsory paid rotating internship on 30th June/31 st December for July and January session respectively. c) Must be registered with the Central State Dental Registration Council. Note: 1. The candidate appointed through the entrance examination for House Job (Oral Health Sciences) for a period of six months, their period can be extended upto one year on the recommendation of the Head of the department. 2. The candidate will be eligible for House Job within 3 years of obtaining the BDS degree. 3. House Job will be offered once in the department for a maximum Period of one year. The selection will be made on the basis of theory examination consisting of 100 objective type questions with maximum of 100 marks. The duration of the examination will be 1½ hours. There will be a common entrance test for MDS and House Job (Oral Health Sciences). with 0.25 negative marking for wrong answers in the theory paper. There will not be any clinical/practical examination. There will be a common merit list for both MDS and House Job. The topper candidates in the merit will be offered MDS and the next in the merit will be considered for House Job. If, a candidate refuses to accept House Job as per merit list, his/her name will still be allowed to continue in the waiting list for MDS. The candidates are requested to attend the interview strictly in order of merit obtained by them in the theory examination. The number of candidates to be called for interview will be three times of the total number of seats to be filled in each category, provided the candidates fulfill the cut off point mentioned above. The interview with selection committee is mandatory. If two or more candidates obtain equal marks in the entrance examination, then interse merit for selection shall be determined on the basis of the following:- a) A candidate who has made more attempts in passing the various professional MBBS/BDS examination shall rank junior to a candidate who has made less number of attempts. b) If the attempts made in passing in the various MD/MS/MBBS/BDS professional examination are also the same then a candidate who has obtained higher marks in the final MBBS/BDS examination shall rank senior to a candidate who has obtained lower marks. c) If the attempts made in passing MD/MS/MBBS/BDS professional examination as also the marks obtained in MBBS/BDS final professional are the same, then a candidate senior in age shall rank senior to a candidate who is junior in age. 1) SC/ST Category The seats for MD/MS, House Job (Oral Heath Sciences), MDS course are reserved for the candidates belonging to Schedule Castes / Tribes and other category of candidates, as per Govt. instructions provided candidates fulfill the minimum admission requirements prescribed by the Institute for the purpose. The candidate belonging to Scheduled Castes / Tribes are required to furnish certificate from the District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/ Collector /1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate, Sub Divisional Magistrate, Taluka Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate, Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar, Sub Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and or his family normally resides, Administrator/ Secretary to Administrator/ Development Officer (Lakshdweep Islands) in support of their claims. The candidates must supply a Hindi / English Translation of their caste certificate along with the application.

• Not below the rank of 1st class Stipendiary magistrate.

2) Rural Area 5% seats in MD/MS course are reserved for the candidates who have actually worked/working or have carried practice in rural area for a minimum of 2 years. The 30th June and 31st December for July and January session respectively as the last date for completion of Rural services. A candidate applying under this category is required to furnish a certificate from the District Magistrate concerned in support of the claim. 11 12 RESERVATION OF SEATS Open (General) OBC, SC/ST

50% Marks

45% Marks

According to the orders of the Government of India, the term rural area includes “a village, a primary health center, a town with less than 5000 population and without a Municipal area”. The certificate to be furnished by the candidates should certify that he/she served or is actually serving or has carried on private practice in a village, primary health center, or town with less than 5000 population and without Municipal area. 3) Orthopaedic physically handicapped candidates a) 3% seats are reserved for Orthopaedic Physically Handicapped persons. b) Minimum cut off marks for entrance examination for Orthopaedic Handicapped candidate will be as under: General : 50th percentile SC/ST : 50th percentile FOR ORTHOPAEDIC PHYSICALLY HANDICAPPED (5) Sponsored / Deputed Candidates A candidate applying for admission as a sponsored / deputed candidate is required to furnish the following certificates with his/her application from his/her employer for admission to the course. a) That the candidate concerned is a permanent or regular employee of the deputing/ sponsoring authority and should have been working for the last at least three years. 13 14 b) That after getting the training at PGI, Chandigarh, the candidate will be suitably employed by the deputing/ sponsoring authority to work at least for five years in the speciality In which the training is received by the candidate at PGI, Chandigarh. c) That no financial implications in the form of emoluments/ stipend etc. will devolve upon PGI, Chandigarh during the entire period of his/her course. Such payment will be responsibility of the sponsoring authority. NB: i) Deputation/ Sponsorship of candidates holding tenure appointment (like house job or Junior or Senior residency, Adhoc or Contract or honorary Appointment against a leave vacancy shall not be accepted. ii) that the sponsorship Institute should not nominate more than one candidate for a speciality/ super speciality, Sponsorship / deputation of candidates will be accepted only from the following: a Central Government Departments/Institutions. b State Government Departments/Institutions. c Autonomous Bodies of the Central or State Government. d Public Sector College affiliated to universities and recognized by the Medical Council of India. In case of candidate deputed/ sponsored by the Medical College affiliated to Universities and recognized by the Medical Council of India, the deputation/sponsorship certificate signed only by the Principal of Medical College concerned shall be accepted. NB 1. Deputation/ Sponsorship of candidates by private nursing homes is not accepted. 2. Deputed/ Sponsored candidates selected are also required to appear in the selection test. 3. Deputed/sponsored candidates selected for admission to any course of the Institute are required to make their own arrangement for stay during the period of their studies. 4. The sponsored candidates for MD/MS courses can opt. for two to three subjects provided he/she is sponsored for these subject by sponsoring authority at the time of submission of application form. No request will be entertained after the submission of application. FOREIGN NATIONALS The Foreign candidates are required to route their application through the Govt. of India Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, New Delhi. They are OTHER CRITERIA FOR ORTHOPAEDIC PHYSICALLY HANDICAPPED FOREIGN NATIONALS (4) OBC CANDIDATES Reservation for OBC is made as per notification of Government of India issued vide OM No. 11015/1/2006-ME P-1 dated 24th April, 2008. Minimum cut off marks for entrance examination in OBC category will be 50th percentile. Only the OBC certificate issued by the District Magistrate/ Deputy Commissioner etc. will be recognized. 1. 2. 3. The candidate must possess a valid document certifying his/her physical disability. i) If it involve only one lower limb, it should have a minimum of 50% and should not exceed 70%. ii) If it involves both the lower limbs the total disability should not exceed 70% with a minimum of 50%. iii) The disability certificate should be produced by a duly constituted and authorized Medical Board of the state or Central Govt. Hospitals/ institutions. iv) The constitution of the Medical Board will be one consultant each from discipline of Orthopaedics, Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation and Surgery. v) The candidates with disability of lower limbs between 50% to 70% shall be considered and in case candidates are not available in that category then only candidates with disability of lower limbs between 40% to 50% may be considered for admission. 15 16 also required to appear in the entrance examination alongwith other candidates. Separate merit list of the Foreign Nationals will be prepared within their own group. The selection of candidates will be made on merit based on their performance in the entrance examination. In the event of selection, the candidates have to apply for temporary registration with the Medical Council of India for the duration of Postgraduate study. However, for D.M./M.Ch., there will be no separate reservation for foreign students under deputed / sponsored category. FEES AND DUES The following dues are payable to the Institute, if each candidate admitted to the various courses mentioned above: a) Registration Fee : Rs.500/- b) Tuition Fee : Rs.350/- per annum for DM/

M.Ch./MDS courses and

Rs.250/- per annum for MD/MS

Courses c) Laboratory Fee : Rs.900/- per annum d) Security : Rs.1000/- for recovery of breakages or loss of equipment. Balance if any, is refundable only on the completion of the course. e) Amalgamated Fund : Rs.60/- p.m. The first instalment of fees for 6 months is required to be paid immediately after selection and the balance is recovered in monthly instalments from those receiving emoluments from the Institute. Others are required to pay the dues half yearly in advance. 1. Fees and other charges once paid shall not be refunded in any case including that of a candidate leaving the Institute before the completion of the term or not joining the institute for any reason. 2. Security will be released only after the receipt of the “No Dues Certificate” on completion of the duration of course. No security will be released to those candidates who do not join or discontinue the course midway. 3. The dues must be paid by the prescribed date. For late payment, a fine @ Rs.5/- per day is charged upto a maximum of 15 days. After 15 days the name of the candidate who does not pay the dues is removed from the rolls of the institute. For re-admission, if otherwise eligible, a sum of Rs.500/- will be charged as re-registration fee in addition to the fine. Such a candidate will have to repeat the period of his/her training for which he/she remains off the rolls. DURATION AND EMOLUMENTS OF THE COURSE DM/MCh. Courses : Three academic years MD/MS course : Three academic years MDS : Three academic years . House Job Oral Health : upto 30th June /31 st Sciences) December for January & July session respectively Emoluments (D.M./M.Ch. Courses) First year : Rs. 18750/- p.m. Second year : Rs.19520/- p.m. Third year : Rs.20310/- p.m. Plus Grade (MD/MS/MDS) First year : Rs.15600/- p.m. Second year : Rs.16230/- p.m. Third year : Rs. 16880/- p.m. (House Job -Oral Health Sciences course) : Book Allowance For DM/M.Ch. Course : Each DM/M.Ch. student will be granted a book allowance of Rs.3000/- per annum for 3 years. During the academic year all the books purchased (worth Rs.3000/-) will have to be submitted alongwith their cash memo duly verified by the concerned Head of the Department during the course. The books will be embossed at 3 places by the concerned Department. The prescribed application of Book Allowance duly forwarded by the HOD accompanied by the cash memo of books purchased shall be considered by the Training branch for sanction of allowance. No claim for the reimbursement will be entertained after the completion of the course. For MD/MS/MDS course: Each MD/MS/MDS student will be granted a book allowance of Rs.2000/- per annum for 3 years. During the academic year, all the books purchased (worth Rs.2000/-) will have to be submitted alongwith their cash memo duly verified by the concerned head of the department during the course. FEES AND DUES Pay Rs. 6600/- Plus NPA Rs. 15600/- p.m. 17 18 The books will be embossed at 3 places by the concerned Department. The prescribed application for book Allowance dully forwarded by the HOD accompanied by the cash memo of books purchased shall be considered by the Training branch for sanction of allowance. No claim for the reimbursement will be entertained after the completion of the course. HOURS OF WORK Continuous active duty for Junior/ Senior Residents shall not exceed normally 12 hours subject to exigencies of work. The Junior Residents will also be required to be on call duty not exceeding 12 hours at a time. Duties and Responsibilities These will be fixed by the institute from time to time. The residents will be required to perform such work as may be needed in the legitimate interest of patient care in the hospital. LEAVE DM/M.Ch : The DM/M.Ch candidates are entitled to 30 days leave per year. The leave for one year cannot be carried forward to subsequent year or encashed. MD/MS/MDS : Candidates admitted to MD/MS/MDS courses will be entitled to 30 days leave during the first year and 36 days leave during each of the second and third years. The leave for one year cannot be carried forward to subsequent year or encashed. Agreement Bond/Surities/Contract for - MD/MS/MDS The Junior Residents will be on contract service for a period of 3 years and will be required to execute an agreement and undertaking on non judicial stamp paper for Rs. 2.25 and Rs.3.00 respectively. Any candidate who joins the MD/MS/MDS course & leaves the said course within six months of joining, will be liable to pay a penalty of Rs.50,000/- (Rupees Fifty thousand only) and thereafter he/she is liable to pay a sum of Rs.1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh only) as penalty. Two sureties on non judicial stamp paper of Rs.15.00 preferably from the local residents are required to be submitted at the time of admission. The candidate who fails to submit the same shall not be allowed to join the course. Sureties from Junior/ Senior Residents are not acceptable. Formats for the same will be provided by the office at the time of Interview/ Counselling. DISSERTATION - DM/M.CH. COURSES Every candidate joining DM/M.Ch course is required to submit a dissertation. The dissertation plan is required to be submitted within 6 months of admission to the course. Dissertation will have to be submitted at the end of 2 years of the course. No candidate shall be allowed to appear in the DM/ M.Ch examination until his/her dissertation has been approved. The examination will be held after 2½ years. The candidates will be at liberty to spend 6 months of their remaining period after the examination either in the department of Experimental Medicine and Bio-technology or in some other related Departments with the permission of Head of the Departments. The result of the candidate will be declared after completion of the course. THESIS -MD/MS COURSES Every candidate who joins MD/MS/MDS course is required to submit a plan of thesis within one year of his/her joining the course. He/She is required to submit the final thesis after completion of 2½ years of his/her joining the course. The candidate will be eligible to take the MD/MS/MDS final examination only after approval of his/her thesis. The candidate who fails to submit his/ her plan of thesis within 12 months of his/her admission will not be allowed to take the final examination and his/her session will be shifted by 6 months. FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE FOR THESIS Junior Residents shall be entitled to a subsidy of Rs.5000/- in lumpsum to meet expenditure on writing thesis. Alongwith the application seeking such assistance, the residents shall submit a certificate from the Dean that the concerned resident has submitted the thesis. MEDICAL BENEFITS All Senior/Junior Residents can avail Medical Benefits for themselves as per the Institute rules. They are also eligible to sick room facility provided to them by the Institute. HOURS OF WORK LEAVE MEDICAL BENEFITS FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE FOR THESIS THESIS -MD/MS/MDS COURSES DISSERTATION - DM/M.Ch. COURSES 19 20 JOINING TIME CLCOLOSSININGG O OF FAD AMDISMSIOISNSION Selected candidates must join their respective course on the prescribed date as indicated in their admission letter. The selection of those who fail to join by the specified date shall automatically stand cancelled. Under exceptional circumstances, a candidate may be allowed to join late upto a maximum of one month on the condition that he/she will make up the deficiency caused in his/her academic term due to late joining, by forfeiting his/her leave, during the first 2 years of his/her admission, to which he/she will be entitled on joining the Institute by the same number of days. For this the candidates will be required to intimate the unavailed leave to Registrar at the end of the first year and get the same adjusted against by forefeiting the same amount of leave, before the end of the second year. However, the candidates whose absence (apart from their absence on leave admissible to them during the period of their studies) does not exceed one month will be permitted to appear in MD/MS and DM/M.Ch/MDS examination alongwith other eligible candidates joining the Institute during the same session. This concession will not, however, be admissible to candidates for their unauthorized absence, if any, during the period of their studies. Admission to all courses i.e. DM/M.Ch/MD/MS/MDS/House Job (Oral Health Sciences) will close on 31st July and 31st January for July and January session respectively. 2ND COUNSELLING Unfilled seats of MD/MS courses; will be offered to all the candidates as per their merit obtained in the entrance examination. Interested candidates are required to be physically present at the second counselling to be held on Thursday, the 14th Jan, 2010 at 3.00 P.M. in Lecture Theatre No.1. Note 1: The candidate who does not get the subject of his/her choice in first counselling can also attend the 2nd counselling to get the subject of his/her choice. No penalty will be charged from the candidate who will be selected in another subject after resigning from the subject in which he/she joined in the first counselling. 2) No TA/DA will be paid for this purpose and no separate communication will be sent in this regard. 3RD COUNSELLING If, still any seat left vacant. it will be offered to the candidates physically present in the Lecture Theatre No. 1 of this Institute on 21Jan, 2010 at 3 P.M. strictly according to the merit obtained by the candidates in the Entrance Note : No TA/DA will be paid for this purpose. No separate communication will be sent in this regard. MEDICAL EXAMINATION Medical fitness will be pre condition for admission to all course(s) of the Institute. Selected candidates are medically examined by a Medical Board constituted by the Institute for the purpose. TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF THE JUNIOR/SENIOR RESIDENCY The service of the Resident may be terminated under the following conditions: 1) By the Director without any previous notice if he is satisfied on medical evidence that the Resident is unfit and is likely to remain so for a considerable period for reasons of ill health and is unable to discharge his/her duties. The decision of the Director whether the Resident is unfit and is likely to continue to remain unfit shall be conclusive and binding on him/her. 2) By the Director without any previous notice if the Resident is found to be guilty of any insubordination, interference or other misconduct or any breach or non performance of any of the provisions of the agreement signed by him at the time of admission or any role pertaining to the institute. If the Junior Resident is suspended from duty in connection with any investigation into her/his conduct, she/he shall not be entitled to any emoluments during such a period of suspension. TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF THE JUNIOR/SENIOR RESIDENCY MEDICAL EXAMINATION 3RD COUNSELLING 2ND COUNSELLING First Counseling/Interview for the MD/MS courses will be held on FIRST COUNSELING/INTERVIEW Saturday the 12th December, 2009 at 12.30 P.M., in Bhargava Auditorium of this Institute Examination. 21 22 GENERAL INFORMATION a) The applications complete in all respects, must reach the Registrar of this Institute either by post or by personal delivery at the counter on or before the closing date. The application may preferably be sent by registered post. For the convenience of the candidates, the closing date for the receipt of applications has been mentioned on the application form. The counter for receipt of applications to be delivered personally will close at 5.00 PM on the closing date and no application will be received thereafter. The Institute will not be responsible if applications are delivered to any other quarters. The fact that the application registration no. has been issued to the candidate does not mean that the application is complete in all respects and has been accepted by the Institute. b) Application received after the closing date will not be considered in any case. The Institute takes no responsibility for any delay in the receipt or loss of application or Admit Card/ Roll No. in transit. c) Incomplete applications will not be considered and no correspondence will be entertained. All particulars in the application form must be written carefully and legibly. All claims made in the application must be supported with documentary proof. d) The candidates who have already done/are doing MD/MS in any subject at the time of applying, shall not be considered for admission to MD/ MS courses. If it is found at a later stage, during active verification that the candidate has given wrong information, his/her registration will be cancelled without any notice. e) Candidates who have obtained MBBS/BDS/MD/MS degree from Medical/Dental Colleges not recognized by the Medical / Dental Council of India are not eligible to apply. f) Candidate should sign all the documents forming enclosure to the application and also put the date. Candidate should enclose with their applications two stamped, self addressed envelopes of size 23 x 10 cms (Rs.6/- Postage on each envelope). These envelops will be used for sending Roll number, selection letter, etc. Therefore, the address on the envelope should be legible, neat and complete, preferably typed. g) No request for the change of category applied for is entertained after the submission of the application to the Institute. h) Candidates in employment must forward their application through proper channel. In case delay is anticipated in the transmission of the application, an advance copy of the application on the prescribed form complete in all respects i.e, accompanied with all the documents must reach Registrar of the Institute before the closing date. The application through proper channel should also reach the Registrar of the Institute within ten days after the last date fixed for the receipt of the application. i) The number of the vacancies where indicated are provisional and may be reduced/ increased without prior notice. j) The decision of the Director of the Institute in the matter of selection of candidates for the various courses shall be final. k) The candidates invited for the selection may have to stay at Chandigarh for 2-3 days. No TA/DA is admissible to them for the purpose . I) Any attempt on the part of a candidate to influence directly or indirectly will be treated as disqualification. m) Selected candidates shall have to pay the fee etc. on the same day, failing which his/her selection will be treated as cancelled and the seat will be offered to the candidate on the waiting list in order of merit. n) Private practice in any form during the course is prohibited. 0) Every Resident except deputed candidates will be provided with rent free, partially furnished accommodation (single room in the hostel) subject to availability. p) The Institute is well equipped and staffed by faculty recruited from all over the country. q) The period of training is strictly full time and ordinarily continuous at the Institute. r) No individual Intimation is sent to the unselected candidates and no correspondence on the subject is entertained. s) The candidates selected for the course shall have to furnish the migration certificate from the University/Institute from which they passed their last examination at the time of their joining alongwith all other certificates in original in support of their qualification, experience, etc. t) The rules are subject to change in accordance with the decision of the Institute taken from time to time. u) If the closing date fixed for the receipt of application by the Institute is declared as a holiday or half holiday by the Chandigarh Administration, GENERAL INFORMATION 23 24 then the immediate next working day shall be the closing date for receipt of applications. v) If any candidate desires to seek any clarification or wants a duplicate Roll No./ Admit Card to be issued, then he/she must do so by seeing Registrar of the Institute on a working day during office hours atleast a day prior to the date fixed for the theory examination. For obtaining a duplicate Roll Number the candidate is required to deposit a fee Rs 50/- and also furnish his/her recent passport size photograph. No document etc. is entertained at the examination Centre and no duplicate Roll No./Admit Card is issued at the examination centre. The Superintendent admits only those candidates to the examination whose candidature is confirmed. w) In case of any dispute, the same shall be settled within the jurisdiction of Chandigarh. x) If any entrance examination/ interview is fixed for any course, there will not be any change in date and the examination interview will be held as per schedule even- if the day is declared as a holiday or half holiday by the Chandigarh Administration. Attending interview/ counselling is mandatory. y) Roll Numbers/ Admit Cards to the eligible candidates for appearing in the entrance examination will be issued approximately fortnight in advance. Any candidate who does not receive any information from this office before 10 days of commencement of the examination may please write to the Registrar by name, giving his/her full particulars, viz name, father's name, course period for which Applied,registration no, category under which applied etc. or may contact in person. (z) The ragging is banned in the Institute. Ragging is cognizable offence. Stern action against the offenders shall be taken. Any one indulging in ragging will be punished appropriately, including expulsion from the institute and/or imprisonment upto 3 years and /or fine upto Rs.25000/-. HOTEL ACCOMMODATION 1 Partially furnished Hostel Accommodation is available within the campus of the Institute. 2. The candidates joining MD/MS/MDS and DM/M.Ch. courses as Junior/ Senior Residents respectively are allotted rent free accommodation 3. Sponsored/ Deputed candidates will not be provided hostel accommodation. These candidates will be considered for allotment of hostel room during the last semester of their studies only on availability of a room. Candidate pursuing DM/M.Ch Course will however, be considered for allotment of hostel for six months for 5th semester only. 4. Foreign students (Male only) will be provided hostel accommodation only in International Hostel, sector 15, Chandigarh. In case of refusal, they shall have to make their own arrangement of their stay. 5. Mess/Canteen facilities are available in the campus. 6. Every resident who has been allotted hostel accommodation is required to pay Rs.600/- as security money which will be refunded at the time of vacation of hostel room. 7. Rules and Regulations a) The Hostel Accommodation is allotted by the Hostel Warden of respective Hostels. b) No change of room will be allowed before 6 months of its allotment. c) In case of change of the room if the key of old room is not handedover within 3 days to the concerned Storekeeper, a penalty of Rs.100/ - and Rs. 200/- per day for bachelor and married hostel will be charged respectively. d) The residents are required to vacate the Hostel Accommodation within 7 days of the completion of their course term failing which Rs.100/- and Rs.200/- per day will be charged for bachelor and married hostel respectively as penal rent for unauthorized occupation of hostel accommodation. At the same time, the room will be got vacated/ unseated by the Hostel Authority / Security Staff during the unauthorized stay. e) Residents will be responsible for the furniture and other fixtures of the room. In case of damage/loss, a penalty would be imposed as assessed by the Wardens of the Hostels. f) No electrical /civil alteration in the room is allowed. g) Cooking in the room (except in Married Doctor's Hostel) is not allowed. h) Subletting of the room is not allowed. In case of subletting, the allotment of the room shall be cancelled forth with and at the same time a panel Rent of Rs.100/- and Rs.200/- per day will be charged for the Bachelor and the Married Hostel respectively from date of allotment. i) Use of Air Conditioner/ Heaters and other electrical appliance consuming high electrical energy is not permitted in the hostel. j) In case the loss or damage of hostel furniture/ property (i.e. bed, chair, table and curtains etc.) the recovery will be made from the hostel security money. k) Mutual change of room will be allowed by the hostel authority. I) The residents are responsible for the cleanliness of their own rooms. LIBRARY Dr Tulsi Das Library, PGIMER, was established in 1962 primarily for meeting the requirements of faculty members and Postgraduate students in different Medical Branches of the Institute. The Library has 43156 books and 52371 bound journals and 461 international and 95 national journals. At present the library has 4851 theses of MD, MS, DM, M.Ch and Ph.D from different The library is subscribing to online databases like Science Direct, MD consult, Wiley- Blackwell and Oxford Journals and a total of 293 online full text journals. The library has already implemented technologies like, wi-fi facility to access high speed internet connection, anti theft RFID Gates and CCTV system is used to monitor activities at different sections. The library is giving services like Electronic document delivery service, scanning, inter library loan, current awareness service, reprographic service, CD-Write, internet browsing, reference service, CD-ROM database search and Audio visual facility is also available. The library is opened from (AM to 12 Midnight throughout the year with extended time of two hours during the examination month's i.e. April and November. . SPORTS AND CULTURAL ACTIVITIES The Institute has upheld the healthy tradition of maintaining the intellectual as well as the-physical fitness of the employees and trainees. The facilities for indoor as well as outdoor games like table tennis, badminton, cricket, law tennis, football etc. have been consistently available to the ethusiasts. A huge complex for water sports situated in the immediate vicinity of the men's hostel is functional. Institute Cultural Programmes Committee works for the promotion of Art, Culture and Literary activities in the campus. Various functions and participation both outside and within the campus, are organized and jointly presented by the students of various courses in the institute namely D.M./ M.Ch./M.D. /M.S./MDS Nursing and Medical Technology. As the students come from far and wide, it bestows integration and international understanding. In addition to creative art, dance, drama, song and music presentations by the Institute staff members, Cultural programmes committee, also organizes performances by artists of International repute from India and abroad, periodic film festivals and retrospectives from special bonanzas for mass entertainment 25 26 Bhargava Auditorium of the Institute is the special attraction being the biggest and one of the best Auditorium in this part of the country. The medium of extracurricular activities is exploited to the maximum of promoting better interpersonal relationship and character building. PROCEDURE TO BE FOLLOWED FOR THE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 1. All the candidates are required to bring their Admit Card. 2. No candidates will be allowed to take the examination without producing the Admit Card. 3. They are required to be seated on their respective seats 15 minutes before the commencement of examination. 4. No material /paper including the envelope of the Admit Card is allowed in the examination hall. 5. Mobiles, Pagers or Calculators are strictly prohibited. 6. All the candidates are advised not to copy any question on a piece of paper / hand etc. if found copying down the questions from the question paper, the candidates will be booked under the UNFAIR MEANS CASE and his examination will be cancelled. 7. If any candidate is found of any breach of rules mentioned in the prospectus or guilty of using UNFAIR MEANS, he/she will be liable to be punished by the competent authority. IMPORTANT NOTE PROCEDURE TO BE FOLLOWED FOR THE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION SPORTS AND CULTURAL ACTIVITIES LIBRARY disciplines. In case any candidates is found to have supplied false Information or certificate etc., or is found to h a v e c o n c e a l e d o r wi t h h e l d s ome information in his/ her application form, he/she shall be debarred from admission. Any other action that may by considered appropriate by the Director of the Institute may also be taken against him / her which may Include Criminal prosecution. ANSWER SHEET FILL IN THE FOLLOWING ENTRIES WITH BALL PEN ONLY ROLL NUMBER NAME OF THE CANDIDATE (IN CAPITAL LETTERS) CENTRE NUMBER CATEGORY SIDE-1 INSTRUCTIONS FOR MARKING ON SIDE-2 Use only ball point pen to completely darken the circle. Darken THE CIRCLE(S) of each question as shown in example below : Answer option if darkened cannot be changed / erased. Make the makes only in the spaces provided. Please do not make any stray makes on the answer sheet. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. Mark your answer only in the appropriate space against the number corresponding to the question you are answering. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 0 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 2 3 4 6 7 8 9 1 0 2 3 4 5 7 8 9 1 0 2 4 5 7 8 9 1 0 4 5 7 8 9 1 3 6 0 5 7 8 9 1 3 6 2 0 4 7 8 9 1 3 6 2 0 2 3 4 5 7 8 9 1 0 5 7 8 9 1 3 6 2 2 4 5 7 8 9 1 6 3 2 4 5 6 4 3 If your Centre number is 15 fill in as below. If your Test Booklet number is 6324, fill in as below: TEST BOOKLET NUMBER If your Roll number is 5643, fill in as below: ROLL NUMBER If your Test Booklet is C, Please fill in as below: TEST BOOKLET CODE A B D Q.NO RESPONSE 16. 2 3 5 CENTRE NUMBER EXAMPLE - HOW TO FILL AND MARK ON SIDE -2 (WITH BALL POINT PEN ONLY ) SIGNATURE OF THE CANDIDATE SIGNATURE OF THE INVIGILATOR If your Response to Question Number 16 is 1 and 4, Please mark as below: 1 5 27 B D C A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 TEST BOOKLET CODE CENTRE NUMBER TEST BOOKLET NUMBER ROLL NUMBER SIDE 2 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 117 28 1029 4. Correct way of marking answer options The correct way of marking answer options is given below. For example, if your response to question No. 21 is 2 then mark it as below:- 021 Similarly, if your response to question No. 55 is 3, then mark it as below:- 055 5. Changing an answer: Answer options once marked cannot be changed. So, be careful while making any answer option. 6. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: i) Use ballpoint pen only for darkening the appropriate answer option and filling the form ii) Mark should be dark and should fill the space provided for filling of answer option . iii) . There will be five alternatives for each of the questions numbering 1 to 250. The candidate will indicate his/her response(s) to the question by darkening the appropriate option(s) completely. Please do not fold the answer sheet and make any stray marks on it. Booklet code as filled up by the candidate will be accepted as final for the purpose of evaluation. In case the booklet code is left blank or more than one booklet code is indicated on the answer sheet, it will be deemed as incorrect booklet code and answer sheet will not be evaluated. The candidate will not do any rough work on the answer sheet. Instructions for Filling of Answer Sheets 1. The specimen copy of the answer sheet which will be used for answering question is given at Annexure-I. Candidates are advised to go through it and be conversant with the requirements of giving particulars and marking the answers so that during the examination they could do so without difficulty, without making any mistake and loss of time. 2. The answer sheet will have two sides. Side 1 contains information about the candidate, instructions and examples for filling side 2. The following columns will be filled by the candidate on side 1 (use ball point pen for side 1). Roll Number : Write your Roll No. here Name of candidate : Write your Name here Centre Number : Write your Centre Number Here Category : Write your category such as General, SC, ST, OBC, OPH, RURAL, Foreign National Deputed Signature of candidate : Put your signature here. 3. Side 2 of the answer sheet will be of special type, which will be scanned on Optical Scanner. This side contains the following columns which are to be filled up neatly and accurately by the candidate (use ball point pen for for side II ): Test Booklet Code Roll Number Centre Number Test Booklet Number Columns 001 to 250 Writing of particulars and responses: Roll Number : Write your roll number as given in the specimen answer Sheet on side 1. For example, Roll No. 5643 Centre Number : Write your centre number as given in the specimen answer Sheet on Side 1. For example, centre number 15 Test Booklet No. : Write your test booklet number as indicated on the test Booklet as given in the specimen answer sheet on side 1. For example, test booklet No. 6324. Test Booklet Code : Each test booklet has been assigned a code. Note this Code and write it as given in the specimen answer sheet. For example, test booklet code No. C Writing of responses : Each column corresponds to the serial number of Question given in the test booklet. With each column there are five options which corresponds to the five responses, one or more of which are connect or most appropriate. A candidate is required to indicate the correct answer to the question by darkening the appropriate circle completely. 29 30 1 4 1 2 4 5 iv) v) vi) 3 5 Eligibility qualification for admission to Master in Hospital Administration (MHA) Course To be eligible for admission, a candidate must possess /fulfill the Following qualification / requirements :- 1. MBBS or its equivalent degree from a University /Institute recognized by the Medical Council of India with three years experience after passing MBBS examination. OR 2. Should have worked in State Medical Services, Armed Forces Medical Services or other equivalent services for a period of five years are spent in a hospital which is approved for purposes of undergoing the compulsory rotating internship or in a command hospital, failing which the aforesaid period of five years whould be increased to seven years. Provided that In case of services in Armed Forces, this aforesaid period of five years shall be in addition to one year or compulsory rotating internship required for purposes of obtaining the MBBS degree and full degree and full registration. OR 3. Should have worked as Medical Superintendent, a Deputy Medical Superintendent in a Civil or Military Hospital for one year. The posts mentioned imply that the candidate would have fulfilled the requirements of above clause as he would have completed five years in the State Medical Services etc.) Duration of the course: Two Academic Years Method of Selection : The selection of candidates for Master In hospital Administration (MHA) Course will be made on the basis of a theory paper carrying 80 marks and Practical examination carrying 20 marks. The theory examination consisting of Part-I and Part -II is of 11/2 hours duration. Part-1 Objective Type question of MBBS level with 40 Marks four options and no negative marking Part-2 Master in Hospital Administration (MHA) with 5 options 40 Marks with multiple correct responses and negative marking Departmental Evaluation 20 marks Eligibility for Departmental Evaluation 35 marks in the theory examination Eligibility for final selection 50 marks out of 100 (i.e. Theory + Departmental Evaluation) 31 32 MD/MS Courses Department Anaesthesia Biochemistry Com Medicine Dermatology ENT Forensic Medicine Internal Medicine Med. Microbiology Nuclear Medicine Obstt & Gynae Ophthalmology Ortho-Surgery Pathology Paediatrics Pharmacology Psychiatry Radio-diagnosis Radiotherapy Gen Surgery Transfusion Medicine 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 5 1 1 2 - 1 6 1 1 4 2 3 2 9 1 1 3 1 6 1 51 3 - - - 1 - 2 - 1 1 1 1 1 2 - 1 - 1 - 1 16 1 - - - - - 1 - - 2 - 1 1 - 1 - - - - 1 8 1 - - - - - 1 - - - - - - 1 - - - - 1 - 4 - 1 - 1 - - - - - - - - - - 1 - - - - - 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 20 1 1 - - 1 1 - 1 - - - - 1 1 1 1 - - 2 1 12 1 - - - - - 1 1 - - - - 1 - 1 - 1 - 2 - 8 S. No. Gen SC ST RA OPH OBC Spon FN SEATS ADVERTISED FOR JANUARY 2010 SESSION 1 1 SC-1 3 ,Spon-01) (Gen.-01) 2 (Gen.-1,Spon-1) Spon-1) (Gen.-1,Spon-1) (Gen.-1,) 2 ) (Gen.-4,Spon-1) (Gen.-5,Spon-1) Surgical Gastroenterology (Gen.-01)