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I’m not sure if I’ll be able to find sources. But my understanding is this. Firstly, the United States and UK were not really “best of allies” until WWII. The Special Relationship was not a concept until Churchill and FDR. So it was not as crazy that he chose the UK to villainize as it would look to modern eyes. Secondly, Chicago had large populations from nationalities that were sour on the UK. The city’s Irish were a large and influential voting bloc, as were the city’s Germans (and remember, this was post-WWI and pre-WWII, Germans had A LOT of bitterness towards the UK) SecretName101 (talk) 06:58, 21 August 2021 (UTC)[reply]