Talk:Wash trade

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Taxation (inactive)

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Is it alway illegal?

Is a trade without change in beneficial ownership illegal if it occurs for tax reasons, not for the purpose of affecting stock prices?

Clarify whether "a securities transaction which involves no change in the beneficial ownership of the security", but does NOT occur "in order to artificially increase trading volume and thus the stock price" is illegal.

For example, if someone buys securities through an IRA or 401K, while simulataneously selling the same securities in a regular brokerage account, and the only purpose of the transaction was to take advantage of the tax benefit of the IRA or 401K, not to manipulate the stock price, is it still illegal? 76.79.113.210 (talk) 20:56, 26 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]