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saying these date "at the time of the Bible or 3,000 years ago" is very POV (and is apparently a verbatim copy of breathless newspaper reports). The archaeological (rather than theological) viewpoint is that the Bible might refer to this period, but none of it was written during this period, and either way the text primarily originates from Judah, not regions like Rehov. The only reason for a phrase like "in the time of the Bible" in this context is as a vague assertion that "the Bible times" as recorded in the Bible is accurate history, and that the remotest connection between the Bible and archaeology is (as always) evidence of this 124.190.6.20200:00, 6 September 2007 (UTC)snaxalotl[reply]
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