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Talk:Stephen Hughes (politician)

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Misleading statement?

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I think the statement "In 2009 he took 25% of the vote, the highest of the three elected MEPs in the region, and the highest share of the vote for Labour in the UK" is rather misleading. The electoral system for MEPs in the UK at the time meant that you voted for a party who had already ranked their candidates, rather than an individual (unless they were an independent). It was Labour that polled 25% rather than Stephen Hughes, who was elected as he was top of Labour's list (just us the other two MEPs elected were top of their parties' lists). The statement also does not make clear that the 25% polled by Labour was a notably lower than Labour had polled in North East England in 2004 (34.1%) and indeed represented a bigger drop in vote share than Labour experienced in, for instance, the West Midlands seat. Thus I think there is an attempt to imply here (possibly unintentionally) an achievement that is not strictly accurate. Dunarc (talk) 20:30, 25 May 2022 (UTC) Modified by Dunarc (talk) 22:52, 26 June 2022 (UTC)[reply]