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In the article is written that shah abbas made Khan of Kazan to make troublke in the Kartlian lands. I had never read this or heard this before and it sounds very illiogical. Why would shah Abbas make a foreigner to make trouble in areas where he deamnds obedience and pacification? Why the Khan of Kazan (Tatarstan)? It is too far away and Khan of Kazan is logically not an ally of Shah Abbas. Khan of Kazan was Sunni and Shah abbas was hostile to them and did not trust them. And knowing Shah Abbas's character it sounds even less logical. Shah Abbas was himself to take the cruelest punitive actions without help of the foreigners. And does it sounds more logical that Shah Abbas might have appointed Giorgi Saakadze to "make troubles for him, r even kill him" who had grudges against Lurasab? --Babakexorramdin (talk) 19:47, 6 January 2010 (UTC)[reply]