Talk:God-man (Christianity)

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I think that the article contradicts itself. It mentions that the term is Western, but uses Eastern terminology. Andries 21:03, 6 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Okay, I'll correct that. The idea is that the western term God-man (with the hyphen) is used in an analogous way to words in the major principle traditions, Moslem (Rasool), Vedantic (Avatar), and Christian (the Christ). The point is that, for instance the romantic poets and western Christian mystics sometimes use this term in a similar esoteric way. How would you suggest I express that? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Sharnak (talk • contribs) 23:50, 6 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Okay, I tried to correct that problem. Perhaps I should call it "romantic" rather than western. I do know that this term carries this connotation in certain sources. There are other cross-over words from Vedantic and Sufi, such as Emerson's "Over-soul," which seems to carry the connotation of Paramatma or Brahman, rather than a western Godhead concept. Emerson for instance was influenced by the Baga Vadgita and other Vedas. So there is this cross over issue in the romantic poets and some Christian mystics that were not meaning precisely western concepts and coined some of their own to approximate somewhat oriental ideas in occidental language. The Catholic theologian and Christian father Origen was the first to use the word "God-man." — Preceding unsigned comment added by Sharnak (talk • contribs) 23:58, 6 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I don't doubt that your usage for "Godman" (without the hyphen) is real as a colloquial term. The reason I removed it from the disambiguation page is that someone made the "Godman" point directly to the site, so there was no need for disambiguation for "Godman" (spelled as such). What do you suggest I do. Both usages appear in scholarship -- apparently along this difference in spelling (hyphen and no-hyphen). — Preceding unsigned comment added by Sharnak (talk • contribs) 00:06, 7 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Where does the definition in this article come from? Andries 19:11, 7 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

The main definition is from the glossary in "God Speaks" by Meher Baba, 1955, sec. ed. p. 305

The reference to Origen's usage is from here: DICTIONARY OF PHILOSOPHY AND PSYCHOLOGY; JAMES MARK BALDWIN (1901) http://psychclassics.yorku.ca/Baldwin/Dictionary/defs/C2defs.htm "Although [Origen] is the first to employ the term 'God-man,' ..." chris 20:12, 7 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Brief article, but rather interesting. I like the comparisons with Hindu and Hebrew, although above it is mentioned that some find this confusing or contradictoryWitnessforpeace 13:31, 10 March 2007 (UTC)[reply]

As I recall, Andries was refering to an earlier version of a year ago. I think these issues have since been resolved. Cott12 Talk 14:00, 10 March 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Why are two messages by Sharnak signed by Sharnak themselves as "Cott12" and as Cott12 named "chris"? ([1]), [2]) Veverve (talk) 12:45, 25 February 2023 (UTC)[reply]

God-Man as Universal Myth

There are many examples of the God-Man myth across many cultures and mythologies. Here are just a few:

Were events in Jesus' life copied from other saviors/god-men/heroes? -- menu of topics

Life events shared by Yeshua (Jesus) and the "Mythic Hero Archetype"

Linkage between Jesus and various Pagan Saviors

Alleged comparisons between Jesus and Horus' life events

--TimeDog (talk) 17:00, 6 July 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Why mystic?

Could someone explain how the (mystic) part of this article title is relevant? Editor2020 (talk) 02:29, 4 June 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Move article

I suggest that this article be moved (renamed) God-man (Christianity), as it is truly a Christian term originally and continues to be. There is no reference to its use in any other religion within the article. Dazedbythebell (talk) 15:07, 17 December 2013 (UTC)[reply]