Talk:Full-time equivalent

Business Mid‑importance

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Education Mid‑importance

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Notes

The example in the article: “For example, if the work year is defined as 2,080 hours, then one worker occupying a paid full time job all year would consume one FTE. Two employees working for 1,040 hours each would consume one FTE between the two of them.” is incorrect. Consuming 2,080 hours or 1 fte does not make you work 2,080 hours (as stated in the article) so, working 2 x 1,040 hours does not make you consume 1 fte or 2,080 hours. It will probably consume much more hours. 213.154.233.200 10:19, 29 December 2006 (UTC)[reply]

The example is probably ok in support of the very simple explanation given. But the previous contributor is correct in that time spend does not equal work done (even with an adequately motivated and 'fully loaded' worker). There are various allowances that need to be added to the 'work value' to determine the resource (FTE) actually needed to do the job. The most important of these allowances is 'relaxation', which recognises the fact that human workers need to periodically recoup expended energy and satisfy personal needs. In the UK, this allowance together with other related 'work study' terms is defined by British Standards. The topic of work study (or work measurement as it isore commonly termed) warrants a more comprehensive treatment.

kejsi

kejsi si ja kalon mir jam shoqja jote e ngusht a do lozim sot . mirupafshim —Preceding unsigned comment added by 79.106.109.93 (talk) 09:24, 18 January 2010 (UTC)[reply]

Ok. Thank you for that effort. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 98.160.200.215 (talk) 08:37, 11 October 2010 (UTC)[reply]

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