Talk:Deception of Zeus

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Comments

I removed this:

Plato made use of this watery cosmogony in several of his dialogues: Cratylus 402, Theaetetus 152e and 180c-d, Timaeus 40e.

because it doesn't seem to be relevant. We're not talking about a cosmogony here. Andrew Dalby 19:13, 6 December 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Morally questionable?

How was this morally questionable? The gods have done far worse things from what I've read. Am I missing something? Zeus is seduced, which doesn't seem terribly bad. Hera tries to manipulate Xeus; but she has done far worse things, like attempting to kill Hercules, etc. Also, her actions were to give the Greeks an upperhand. Was this the part that was so controversial? I thought the gods were always actively involved in the war? Also, why would Zeus want the trojans to win? I do know that he was for the Trojan War, simply to kill off more people, but I can't see why he would choose sides. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 207.12.38.83 (talk) 05:28, 26 September 2007 (UTC)[reply]

No cosmogony? And Burkert's opinion

The (alleged) "hieros gamos" may well be related to cosmogony in connection with the annual cycle. I wonder whether it originally even had another meaning. In my opinion the article focuses now too much on the moral side of the issue. Are there for example no scholars interpreting the mention of Okeanos and Tethus in this context?

Another question: Burkert is quoted (footnote 2), apparently citing Dihle. Is the quotation Burkert's viewpoint as well? Otherwise, could this be clarified? --Heunir (talk) 14:07, 13 April 2009 (UTC)[reply]