Talk:Henry II, Count of Champagne

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Untitled

Shouldn't this be at Henry I of Jerusalem? Srnec 05:02, 8 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

He never took or used the title of king, curiously enough. Patrick A. Williams, in "The Assassination of Conrad of Montferrat: Another Suspect?", Traditio, vol. XXVI, 1970, wonders if guilt may have been a factor. Silverwhistle 10:09, 8 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

So he considered himself king of Jerusalem, but never actually employed the title? That sounds odd (or suspicious as the case may be). Srnec 17:24, 8 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Godfrey of Bouillon never used that title either. Henry didn't even possess Jerusalem so it's not really all that suspicious. Adam Bishop 19:32, 8 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

On the other hand, his wife was still Queen of Jerusalem, and she had never owned it, either. Ditto for her daughter Maria and descendants. And Amaury, Isabella's last husband, used it, as well as being King of Cyprus. Silverwhistle 20:37, 8 April 2006 (UTC)[reply]

In 1192, Guy De Lusignan and Pisans got kicked out Acre (Israel) by Henry II, didn't THEY push him out the window ? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 77.192.132.212 (talk) 20:27, 28 January 2012 (UTC)[reply]

No, apparently he just fell. I don't think anyone suspected murder. Adam Bishop (talk) 21:13, 28 January 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Henri versus Henry

FYI

– Pointer to relevant discussion elsewhere.

Please see Talk:Henry III of France#Why the anglicized "Henry"?
— SMcCandlish ☏ ¢ 😼 07:12, 21 February 2018 (UTC)[reply]